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In the public sector consulting business, where we have to deal with DBE
(i.e. "minority") participation, this is not at all uncommon.

For example, for a contract for services with the Texas Department of
Tranportation, we will typically have "subconsultants" who are contracted TO
US, not to TxDOT, for their portion of the work. Typically, these are small
areas of the scope that we don't do ourselves, such as traffic engineering.
Again, they are subbed to us, and we are the prime consultant.

Also, on water/wastewater treatment projects, we are typically prime, and we
have an "M.E.P." subconsultant (for the mechanical, electrical and
piping/plumbing) who does that portion of the work, which we are not
qualified to perform. Again, his contract is with us, not the client (city,
county, extra-governmental authority (of which there are an abundance in
TX), etc.)

I realize that we're talking public sector vs. private, but in your
question, you mention "legality" and "owner." Seems to me these terms would
pertain whether public or private clients are involved.

Also, FWIW, I don't see any significant difference between working for an
architect, and working for another engineer. That's just my own opinion.

-----Original Message-----
From: JohnOttCE(--nospam--at) [mailto:JohnOttCE(--nospam--at)]
Sent: Tuesday, November 23, 1999 6:22 PM
To: seaint(--nospam--at)

What is the legality of contracting for services with an 
unlicensed individual (such as a general contractor, mechanical engineer, 
etc.) for services to be provided to an owner?