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# Re: Question about brace design forces for columns

• To: <seaint(--nospam--at)seaint.org>
• Subject: Re: Question about brace design forces for columns
• From: THunt(--nospam--at)absconsulting.com
• Date: Wed, 24 Sep 2003 09:44:59 -0700

Clifford,

For a good explanation and the derivation of the formulas that lead you to the 2% approximation, look at the section "Lateral Bracing Design" in Salmon and Johnson's STEEL STRUCTURES text book.  It is section 9.13 in my old third edition.

Thomas Hunt, S.E.
ABS Consulting

Clifford Schwinger <clifford234(--nospam--at)yahoo.com>

09/24/2003 07:51 AM

 To seaint(--nospam--at)seaint.org cc Subject Question about brace design forces for columns

Could someone please explain to me where the
rule-of-thumb that column braces be designed for 2% of
the column vertical load comes from? (I think in Great
Britain there is a code requirement to use a value of
2.5%)

If 1:500 out-of-plumbness is allowed, then a brace
that's restraining the top of one column and the
bottom of another column (which are each kinked 1:500
out of plumb in a “V” shape) will have a theoretical
brace force of 0.4%.  Assuming that you impose a brace
stiffness requirement that restricts brace deformation
(and additional associated horizontal column movement
at the brace connection) to another 1:1000, you would
still only have a theoretical brace force of 0.6%. Is
the 2% rule of thumb used to provide a safey factor
(of about 3) on the very critical brace member, or to
account for other unanticipated lateral deformations
at or near the brace connection?  Maybe I just
answered my own question, but I’d like to get some
opinions on this issue.

Also, does anyone know why there are no codified brace
force design requirements in U.S. codes and standards?
The European codes all seem to provide specific design
criteria for braces.

Thanks!

Cliff Schiwnger

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