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OT : does 2 really come after 1

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Hi all

This is just a thought.

If we consider the existence of infinity, rational and
irrational numbers, then would you ever be able to
reach 2 after 1 since you could go on from 1.1 through
1.17123687213468977632178 to infinity and never reach
2.

is there a wrong thinking of my part or does this
actually hold ?

cheers
Anantha


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ANANTHA NARAYAN
Graduate Student
Structural Engineering and Materials (SEM)
Virginia Tech,  VA - 24061






	
	
		
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