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# RE: OT : does 2 really come after 1

• To: <seaint(--nospam--at)seaint.org>
• Subject: RE: OT : does 2 really come after 1
• From: "Jake Watson" <jwatson(--nospam--at)utahisp.com>
• Date: Sun, 31 Oct 2004 12:18:48 -0700

```I love brain teasers.  Too often the code offers them, but teasers like this
can be great fun.  I try will answer your question with a short anecdote.

If you shoot an arrow at a tree, will the arrow ever hit the tree?  We all
know the arrow will ultimately hit the tree, but if you look at the math is
can be a little more interesting.  You can say that the arrow covers half
the distance between the archer and the tree during the first time interval.
During the second interval, the arrow covers half the same distance in half
the original time.  During the third interval, the arrow covers 1/4 the
distance in 1/4 the time.  You can divide the distance and time until the
sun sets for the last time.  If you do that, the arrow never hits the tree.

The trick to get the right answer is to use limit theory that underpins
calculus.  You can divide your intervals between 2 and 1 into 1/infinity
size increments.  Then sum them all up using the properties of the integral
or limit theory.

Yes 2 comes after 1, at least until I lose the other 4 fingers on my right
hand.

Now my turn.  How is money created?  Assume there is \$100 in our economy. I
spend my \$10 and give it to someone else for a haircut.  There is still \$100
in our economy, we have just change the distribution of money.  Not the
total quantity.  I got my \$10 from someone who got it from someone else.
Round and round we go until....?  But at no point does someone get a free
\$10 so there is now \$110 in our economy.  Even if I borrow money, someone
has to have the money in the first place to loan it to me.  How is it that
our economy today is worth more than 100x what it was 200 years ago?  How do
I become the person who gets to introduce money into the economy?

Jake Watson, P.E.
Salt Lake City, Utah

-----Original Message-----
From: Anantha Narayan C.K. [mailto:anant_27(--nospam--at)yahoo.com]
Sent: Sunday, October 31, 2004 9:23 AM
To: seaint(--nospam--at)seaint.org
Subject: OT : does 2 really come after 1

Hi all

This is just a thought.

If we consider the existence of infinity, rational and
irrational numbers, then would you ever be able to
reach 2 after 1 since you could go on from 1.1 through
1.17123687213468977632178 to infinity and never reach
2.

is there a wrong thinking of my part or does this
actually hold ?

cheers
Anantha

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ANANTHA NARAYAN
Structural Engineering and Materials (SEM)
Virginia Tech,  VA - 24061

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